1.
In the cardiac catheterization lab, measuring the instantaneous wave-free ratio (iFR) is often preferred over Fractional Flow Reserve (FFR) because iFR:
2.
A patient with severe aortic stenosis presents with a calculated Aortic Valve Area (AVA) of 0.8 cm2, a mean transvalvular gradient of 25 mmHg, a Left Ventricular Ejection Fraction (LVEF) of 60%, and a stroke volume index (SVi) of 28 mL/m2. This pattern best describes:
3.
The LoDoCo2 (Low-Dose Colchicine) trial demonstrated that adding low-dose colchicine (0.5 mg daily) in patients with chronic coronary disease significantly reduced:
4.
In patients with suspected Transthyretin Cardiac Amyloidosis (ATTR-CA), a Technetium-99m Pyrophosphate (Tc-99m PYP) scan is considered highly specific for ATTR if the cardiac uptake grade is:
5.
Idiopathic left ventricular tachycardia (Belhassen VT) characteristically originates from the posterior fascicle of the left bundle branch and is acutely terminated by which medication?
6.
In the AUGUSTUS trial evaluating patients with Atrial Fibrillation who underwent PCI, which antithrombotic strategy resulted in the lowest rates of bleeding without significantly increasing ischemic events?
7.
In intravascular imaging during PCI, Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT) is distinguished from Intravascular Ultrasound (IVUS) by having:
8.
During right and left heart catheterization to differentiate Constrictive Pericarditis from Restrictive Cardiomyopathy, which finding strongly favors Constrictive Pericarditis?
9.
The Impella device is a percutaneous mechanical circulatory support system. Where must the inlet and outlet of an Impella CP be positioned to function correctly?
10.
In patients undergoing Valve-in-Valve (ViV) TAVR for a degenerated surgical aortic bioprosthesis, the most critical anatomical measurement to predict and prevent acute coronary obstruction is the:
11.
Ivabradine reduces heart rate without affecting myocardial contractility or blood pressure. Its unique mechanism of action is:
12.
On a standard 12-lead ECG, the presence of an Osborn wave (J wave) is most classically associated with:
13.
In assessing the severity of Mitral Regurgitation (MR) via echocardiography, a vena contracta width greater than or equal to what value is indicative of severe MR?
14.
Which specific imaging modality is the gold standard for diagnosing isolated Cardiac Sarcoidosis by detecting active myocardial inflammation?
15.
In patients receiving Cardiac Resynchronization Therapy (CRT), approximately what percentage of patients are classified as ‘non-responders’ (failing to show clinical or echocardiographic improvement)?
16.
During percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), rotational atherectomy (Rotablator) relies on the principle of ‘differential cutting’. This means the burr preferentially ablates:
17.
The classic hemodynamic definition of Cardiogenic Shock includes a Cardiac Index (CI) and Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure (PCWP) of:
18.
In adult patients presenting with uncorrected Coarctation of the Aorta, chest radiography classically demonstrates rib notching on the INFERIOR margins of which ribs?
A) Ribs 1 and 2B) Ribs 3 through 8C) Ribs 9 through 12D) Superior margins of all ribs
19.
Which of the following adverse effects is uniquely associated with Ticagrelor compared to other P2Y12 inhibitors like Clopidogrel and Prasugrel?
A) Gastrointestinal bleedingB) Severe neutropeniaC) Dyspnea and ventricular pausesD) Hypothyroidism
20.
What is the requisite pharmacological ‘washout’ period when transitioning a heart failure patient from an ACE inhibitor (e.g., Lisinopril) to an ARNI (Sacubitril/Valsartan) to prevent severe angioedema?
A) No washout period is requiredB) 12 hoursC) 36 hoursD) 72 hours
21.
In patients with a completely concealed accessory pathway, which of the following arrhythmias is IMPOSSIBLE to occur utilizing the pathway?
A) Orthodromic AVRTB) Antidromic AVRTC) Atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular responseD) Atrial flutter
22.
The echocardiographic assessment of diastolic function relies heavily on the E/e’ ratio. A medial E/e’ ratio greater than what value is highly indicative of elevated left ventricular filling pressures (Grade II or III diastolic dysfunction)?
A) > 8B) > 10
23.
In patients with suspected cryptogenic stroke, the RESPECT trial provided data supporting the use of percutaneous PFO closure devices primarily for which specific demographic?
A) Patients over the age of 75 with heavy atherosclerotic burdenB) Patients under the age of 60 with no other identifiable cause of strokeC) Patients with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation who cannot tolerate anticoagulationD) Patients with severe migraines with aura, without prior stroke
24.
Loeffler endocarditis is a restrictive cardiomyopathy uniquely characterized by severe endomyocardial fibrosis and the presence of:
A) Non-caseating granulomasB) Apple-green birefringence on Congo red stainC) Peripheral and myocardial eosinophiliaD) Extensive iron deposition in the myocytes
25.
The ISCHEMIA trial randomized patients with moderate-to-severe stable ischemia to a routine invasive strategy (angiography + revascularization) versus a conservative medical strategy. The primary outcome concluded that:
A) The invasive strategy significantly reduced all-cause mortalityB) There was no significant difference in the composite of CV death, MI, or hospitalization for HF/unstable angina between the two strategiesC) The conservative strategy resulted in a significantly higher rate of fatal MID) The invasive strategy was only beneficial in patients with LVEF